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Old 06-04-2003, 06:15 PM   #99
Burr
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Join Date: Apr 2002
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me:

Unifex:

Ouch, I did say that poorly.  Allow me to try again.  Let A, B, and C be the unrealized value owned individually by three respective persons in a society of three.  Let X, Y, and Z be their respective innovations (a realization of value).  Let S be the total unrealized value owned jointly and equally by all members of society.

Let A, B, and C each be equal to 20.  Let S = 100, for there were once other contributing members of society, though they are now dead.  Then let's say A, B, and C each give a value of 5 to S, and then they each give a value of 5 to their respective creations.  S happens to provide 15 to each of their creations.

Now A, B, and C each equals 10.  S equals 60.  And X, Y, and Z each equal 20.

Now, someone might look at that situation and say, "Well, see, S provided more than any one of A, B, or C did."  However, we must remember that S belongs to A, B, and C, and thus can be allocated between them.  That means...

X = 5 directly from A, 5 indirectly from A (via S), 5 from B, and 5 from C.

A also contributed 5 to Y and 5 to Z (via S).  Thus, A exchanged an equal amount of value to B's and C's innovations as they did to A's innovation.  In effect, A compensated them (and him/herself, and thus the whole of society) for the value given to X, A's innovation, via S, society.

Thus, so long as we assume that member of society has contributed to society no less than the average of what was contributed by all members of society, then  we know that that member has compensated society for the value added by society to their innovation.  Thus, so long as they are willing to give up their claims to the innovations of all other existing members of society, then they can reasonably claim their innovation as their own, completely and fully, not a bit of it belonging to society as a whole.
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